Following his release from the New York Jets on Tuesday night, former Steeler running back Le’Veon Bell is looking for a new home.
While plenty of contenders across the league could use his services, oddsmakers seem to think a reunion in Pittsburgh is a strong possibility.
The Steelers currently have the second-best odds to be Bell’s next team at 6/1, courtesy of SportsBetting.ag.
The Chicago Bears currently have the best odds to land Bell at 3/1. They currently own the 26th-ranked rush offense in the league, and have scored just one rushing touchdown all season after starter Tarik Cohen suffered a season-ending injury.
While the Steelers are 4-0 for the first time since 1979, Bell could certainly add some playmaking ability to the Steelers’ rushing and passing games which are both average statistically compared to the rest of the league.
Bell’s tenure in New York proved to be a disaster, as he rushed for just 863 yards and only four touchdowns through 17 games. He had no rushes over 19 yards while playing under Jets head coaches Adam Gase, and did not post a single 100-yard rushing performance.
Some of the other teams expected to pursue Bell include the Kansas City Chiefs (7/1), Cleveland Browns (15/2), Tampa Bag Buccaneers (15/2) and Tennessee Titans (8/1)
Bell spent the first five season of his career in Pittsburgh before signing with the Jets as a free agent back in 2019. He is fourth in franchise history in rushing yards (5,335) and touchdowns (35). He also caught 312 passes for 2,660 yards and seven touchdowns as a Steeler, with receptions and yards the most by a running back in team history. Bell was selected to three Pro Bowls and was twice named First-Team All-Pro.